Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 04:11
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
How does a 45-year-old man get a girlfriend?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Do you as a gay male enjoy the feeling of getting a penis in your anus?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.